Đề luyện thi THPTQG môn Anh 2017 - Đề số 12 - Có đáp án

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA - ĐỀ SỐ 12
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. cooks B. loves C. joins D. spends
Question 2: A. worker B. whom C. interview D. answer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. situation B. appropriate C. informality D. entertainment
Question 4: A. technical B. advertise C. candidate D. consider

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Though Lan had tried hard, she was not qualified with the job.
A B C D
Question 6: The album is first released in 1962, when pop music was so popular.
A B C D
Question 7: Since the 1930s, the archeology has become a precise science with strict rules.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: The letter …………grandma was kept carefully in a box.
A. you wrote B. which you wrote to C. to whom wrote D. which wrote
Question 9: The school library is open ______ all of the students and the teching staff.
A. to B. for C. over D. with
Question 10: Before ______ for a position, check whether you can fulfill all the requirements from the employer.
A. deciding B. applying C. requiring D. demanding
Question 11: It is often a good idea to start with small, easily _____ goals.
A. achieve B. achievement C. achievable D. achiever
Question 12: By the time he ______ for Paris, the contract will have completed.
A. has left B. will leave C. left D. leaves
Question 13: _______ and talent are two important factors for an actress’s success.
A. Attraction B. Attractting C. Being attracted D. Attractiveness
Question 14: She has a promising future ahead _______ her.
A. for B. of C. with D. about
Question 15: What would happen if the sun ________ shining.
A. stops B. should stop C. stopped D. has stopped
Question 16: Lots of houses _______ by the earthquake.
A. destroyed B. destroying C. have destroyed D. were destroyed
Question 17: John asked me ______ that film the night before.
A. that I saw B. had I seen C. if I had seen D. that I had seen
Question 18: It is thought that traditional marriage ______ are important basis of limiting divorce rates.
A. appearances B. records C. responses D. values
Question 19: Polar bears _______ to sleep for nearly 6 months in winter.
A. are said B. they say C. say D. has been said

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: : - I’m sorry about that! - ................!
A. That’s right B. Of course C. You’re welcome D. It’s Ok
Question 21: – “ What a lovely house you have ! “ – “ ……………………………………”
A. I think so. B. Of course C. Thank you. D. You’re welcome

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlinded word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I have no intention of resigning from my post in the government.
A. retiring B. quitting C. promoting D. restoring
Question 23: This is the instance where big, obvious non- verbal signals are appropriate.
A. situation B. attention C. place D. matter

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlinded word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The washing machine I have just bought is very simple to use.
A. difficult B. easy C. boring D. interesting
Question 25: You shouldn’t wear casual clothes to an interview. As this may give your interviewers wrong impression.
A. informal B. nice C. elegant D. formal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: “If I were you, I would take the job,” said my room-mate.
A. My room-mate was thinking about taking the job.
B. My room-mate advised me to take the job.
C. My room-mate introduced the idea of taking the job to me.
D. My room-mate insisted on taking the job for me.
Question 27: The young woman who lives next door is very kind to my family.
A. The young woman to live next door is very kind to my family.
B. The young woman he lives next door is very kind to my family.
C. The young woman living next door is very kind to my family.
D. The young woman lived next door is very kind to my family.
Question 28: She started learning English ten years ago.
A. She has not learnt English before.
B. She has learnt English since ten years.
C. She has started learning English for ten years
D. She has learnt English for ten years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Ms Lee did so good work on that project, she quickly got a promotion.
A. Ms Lee did so good work on that project that she quickly offered a promotion.
B. Ms Lee did so good work on that project she was quickly offered a promotion.
C. Ms Lee did so good work on that project but she was quickly offered a promotion.
D. Ms Lee did so good work on that project that quickly being offered a promotion.
Question 30: A girl answered the phone. She told me you were out.
A. The girl who answered the phone told me you were out.
B. The girl whom answered the phone told me you were out.
C. The girl whose answered the phone told me you were out.
D. The girl to whom told me you were out answered the phone.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Many American customs will surprise you, the same thing happens to us when we (31) ________ another country. People from various cultures handle many small daily things differently. What a dull world it would be if this were not true!
Some differences are minor, and people soon become accustomed to them. At (32) ________, for example, some foreign women may be startled at the idea of (33) _______ their hair cut or styled by men. Visitors may be amazed to see men wearing wigs. People may (34) ________ the transitory quality of much American life odd, for example, one (35) _______ rent art by the week or the entire furnishings of an apartment, from sofa and bed to the last spoon, on less than 8 hours’ notice.

Question 31: A. come B. visit C. arrive D. travel
Question 32: A. least B. all C. first D. last
Question 33: A. giving B. having C. showing D. taking
Question 34: A. get B. find C. regard D. put
Question 35: A. should B. must C. can D. shall

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essiential part of a healthy diet. They provide the main source of energy for the body, and they also function to flavor and sweeten food. Carbohydrates range from simple sugars like glucose to complex sugars such as amylase and amylopectin. Nutritioniists estimate that carbohydrates should make up about one-fourth to one-fifth of a person’s diet. This traslates to about 75- 100 grams of carbohydrates per day.
A diet that is deficient in carbohydrates can have an adverse effect on a person’s health. When the body lacks a sufficient carbohydrates it must then use its protein supplies for energy, a process called gluconeogenesis. This, however, results in a lack of necessary protein, and further health difficulties may occur. A lack of carbohydrates can also lead to ketosis, a
build-up of ketones in the body that causes fatigue, lethargy, and bad breath.

Question 36: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Carbohydrates are needed for good health.
B. Carbohydrates prevent a build-up proteins.
C. Carbohydrates can lead to ketosis.
D. Carbohydrates are an expendable part of a good diet.
Question 37: The word ‘range’ is closest in meaning to _________
A. change
C. proceed B. extend
D. progress
Question 38: According to the passage, what do most nutritionist suggest ?
A. Sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesis.
C. Carbohydrates should make up about a quarter of a person’s daily diet. B. Carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucose.
D. Carbohydrates should be eaten in very small quantities.
Question 39: Which of the following do carbohydrates NOT do ?
A. cause gluconeogenesis.
C. provide energy for the body. B. flavor and sweeten food.
D. prevent ketosis.
Question 40: The word ‘lack’ is most similar to _________
A. emission
C. removal B. shortage
D. cutting
Question 41: Which of the following best describes the author’s tone ?
A. sensitive
C. informative B. emotional
D. regretful
Question 42: A lack of carbohydrates can lead to ______
A. lethargy
C. good diet
B. energy
D. protein

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

EDUCATION IN THE FUTURE

Education is another area of social life in which information technology is changing the way we communicate. Today's college students may not simply sit in a lecture or a library to learn about their field. Through their computers and the wonders of virtual reality theycan participate in lifelike simulated experiences. Consider the following scenario of the future of education made possible through developments in information technology.
For children over the age of 10, daily attendance at schools is not compulsory. Some of the older children attend school only once or twice weekly to get tutorial support or instruction from a teacher. For the most part, pupils are encouraged to work online from home. Students must complete a minimum number of study hours per year; however, they may make up these hours by studying at home at times that suit their family schedule. They can log on early or late in the day and even join live classes in other countries. In order to ensure that each student is learning adequately, computer software will automatically monitor the number of hours a week each student studies on-line as well as that students' learning materials and assessment activities. Reports will be available for parents and teachers. The software can then identify the best learning activities and condition for each individual student and generate similar activities. It can also identify areas of weak achievement and produce special programs adjusted to the students' needs.

Question 43: How many times are children who are older than 10 required to go to school weekly?
A. no time B. three times C. four times D. once or twice
Question 44: What is NOT MENTIONED as a benefit of information technology to the students?
A. Students' learning time won't be monitored
B. Students' weak achievement can be identified.
C. Students can learn at times that suit their schedule
D. Students can stay at home to learn
Question 45: What CAN'T the software do?
A. Monitor the time the students learn B. Find out the best activities for the students
C. Identify weaknesses of the students D. Design materials for the students
Question 46: What is the topic of the passage?
A. The effect of information technology on education
B. Computer software will make sure students learn at home
C. Students can know about their weak aspects to focus.
D. students don't have to go to school any more
Question 47: Who/What counts the number of hours per week that students spend learning?
A. Parents B. Teacher C. Computer software D. Virtual reality
Question 48: The word adequately in the passage mostly means_______.
A. suficiently B. significantly C. consequently D. Suitably
Question 49: The word encouraged in the passage mostly means_________.
A. Suggested B. Allowed C. Permitted D. Stimulated
Question 50: Daily attendance at school is compulsory for children _________.
A. under 15 B. over 10 C. under 5 D. under 10

THE END

ANSWER KEYS

Question 1 A Question 26 B
Question 2 A Question 27 C
Question 3 B Question 28 D
Question 4 D Question 29 B
Question 5 D Question 30 A
Question 6 B Question 31 B
Question 7 B Question 32 C
Question 8 B Question 33 B
Question 9 A Question 34 B
Question 10 B Question 35 C
Question 11 C Question 36 A
Question 12 D Question 37 B
Question 13 D Question 38 C
Question 14 B Question 39 D
Question 15 C Question 40 B
Question 16 D Question 41 C
Question 17 C Question 42 A
Question 18 D Question 43 D
Question 19 A Question 44 A
Question 20 D Question 45 D
Question 21 C Question 46 A
Question 22 B Question 47 C
Question 23 A Question 48 A
Question 24 A Question 49 D
Question 25 D Question 50 D